waec physics essay 2023 questions and answers

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Physics 2023 WAEC Past Questions

Which of the following statements about the properties of the electric field produced by charged parallel plates is not correct?

A. The electric field in the region outside the parallel plate is zero, except for the edge effects
B. The magnitude of the electric field strength at any point between the plates, except near the edges, depends on the magnitude of the charge on each plate.
C. The magnitude of the electric field strength at any point between the plates is directly proportional to the magnitude of the charge on each plate.
D. The electric field is uniform everywhere in the space between the parallel plates

waec physics essay 2023 questions and answers

The diagram above illustrates a mode of vibration of a wire of length 125 cm. The speed of the waves along the wire is 120 ms-1. Use the diagram to answer questions 2 and 3.

The diagram above illustrates a mode of vibration of a wire of length 125 cm. The speed of the waves along the wire is 120 ms-1. Use the diagram to answer questions 2 and 3. Determine the frequency of the waves

Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates the mode of oscillation of air in a tube for the first overtone?

( The diagrams above are meant to help you in answering this question)

The process of producing electric current by a changing magnetic field is referred to as

A. magnet induction
B. electromagnetic induction
C. flux linkage
D. electrostatic induction.
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WAEC Physics Questions/Answers for Essay & Objective 2023

The West African Examinations Council (WAEC) is a reputable examination board responsible for conducting the West African Senior School Certificate Examination (WASSCE) annually. This examination tests the knowledge and understanding of students in various subjects, including Physics. With millions of candidates participating in the WAEC exams every year, it is essential to be well-prepared to excel in this crucial examination.

In this comprehensive guide, we will provide you with sample WAEC Physics Answers 2023 questions for both essay and objective sections to help you prepare effectively for the examination. We will also offer valuable tips and strategies for tackling these questions and boosting your chances of success.

Section 1: Introduction to WAEC Physics Examination

The WAEC Physics examination tests candidates’ understanding of the fundamental principles and concepts of Physics. The exam is divided into two parts: Paper 1, which contains objective questions, and Paper 2, consisting of essay questions. Both sections are designed to assess a candidate’s ability to apply their knowledge and skills to solve Physics problems accurately and efficiently.

Section 1.1: Structure of the WAEC Physics Examination

The WAEC Physics examination consists of two papers:

Paper 1 (Objective): This section consists of multiple-choice questions, which candidates must answer within a specified time limit. The questions cover various topics in Physics, including mechanics, thermodynamics, electricity and magnetism, waves and optics, and nuclear Physics.
Paper 2 (Essay): This section features essay questions that require candidates to provide detailed explanations and solutions to various Physics problems. The questions in this section are designed to assess a candidate’s ability to apply their knowledge and skills to solve complex Physics problems accurately and efficiently.

Section 2: Sample WAEC Physics Answers 2023 Questions for Essay

In this section, we will provide you with sample WAEC Physics Answers 2023 essay questions to help you understand the format and structure of the examination. These questions are drawn from past WAEC Physics examinations and are designed to give you a clear idea of what to expect in the actual examination.

NOTE: The actual WAEC Physics exam will not contain these exact questions. The purpose of these sample questions is to provide you with a general idea of the types of questions you may encounter in the exam. Please do not rely solely on these questions for your preparation.

Essay Question 1:

A particle is projected horizontally at 15ms-1 from a height of 20m. Calculate the horizontal distance covered by the particle just before hitting the ground. [g = 10 ms-2]

Essay Question 2:

State Faraday’s second law of electrolysis and provide an example to illustrate the law.

Essay Question 3:

Explain three methods of polarizing an unpolarized light.

Essay Question 4:

Young’s modulus is a measure of the stiffness of a material. Define Young’s modulus and explain its significance in engineering applications.

Essay Question 5:

Describe the process of diffusion and state two applications of electrical conduction through gases.

Essay Question 6:

List and explain two properties of cathode rays and how the intensity and energy of cathode rays may be increased.

Essay Question 7:

Provide three observations that support de Broglie’s assumption that moving particles behave like waves.

Essay Question 8:

Differentiate between plane polarization and interference as applied to waves and list two uses of polaroids.

Essay Question 9:

State two factors that affect the mass of elements deposited during electrolysis and list two non-electrolytes.

Essay Question 10:

Explain the principles and applications of a ripple tank in the study of wave phenomena.

Section 3: Sample WAEC Physics Answers 2023 Questions for Objective

In this section, we will provide you with sample WAEC Physics Answers 2023 objective questions to help you understand the format and structure of the examination. These questions are drawn from past WAEC Physics examinations and are designed to give you a clear idea of what to expect in the actual examination.

Objective Question 1:

An electron moves with a speed of 2.00 x 107 ms-1 in an orbit in a uniform magnetic field of 1.20 x 10-3T. Calculate the radius of the orbit. [Mass of an electron = 9.11 x 10-31kg; charge on an electron = 1.61 x 10-19C]

Objective Question 2:

A tennis ball projected at an angle attains a range R = 78 m. If the velocity imparted to the ball by the racket is 30ms-1, calculate the angle of projection. [g=10ms-2]

Objective Question 3:

A metallic bar 50 cm long has a uniform cross-sectional area of 4.0 cm2. If a tensile force of 35kN produces an extension of 0.25 mm, calculate the value of Young’s modulus.

Objective Question 4:

A stone projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a speed of 4 ms-1 lands on the level ground at a horizontal distance of 25 m from the foot of the tower. Calculate the height of the tower. [g = 10 ms-2]

Objective Question 5:

A spiral spring with a metal extends by 10.5cm in the air. When the metal is fully in water, the spring extends by 6.8 cm. Calculate the relative density of the metal (Assume Hooke’s law is obeyed).

Objective Question 6:

A ray of light is incident on an air-glass boundary at an angle θ. If the angle between the partially reflected ray and the refracted ray is 90°, calculate θ given that the refractive index of glass is 1.50.

Objective Question 7:

A ball is projected horizontally from a height with a velocity of 40 ms-1. Calculate the drop in height after traveling a horizontal distance of 30m. [Neglect air resistance; g = 10 ms-1]

Section 4: Tips and Strategies for Tackling WAEC Physics Questions

In this section, we will provide you with valuable tips and strategies to help you tackle WAEC Physics questions effectively and boost your chances of success in the examination.

Understand the fundamentals: Make sure you have a strong grasp of the fundamental principles and concepts of Physics. This will enable you to apply your knowledge and skills to solve Physics problems accurately and efficiently.
Practice regularly: Regular practice is essential for success in any examination. Make it a habit to solve sample WAEC Physics questions frequently to familiarize yourself with the format and structure of the examination.
Review past questions: Reviewing past WAEC Physics questions can help you identify common themes and topics that frequently appear in the examination. This will enable you to focus your preparation on these areas and improve your chances of success.
Manage your time effectively: Time management is crucial in any examination. Make sure you allocate sufficient time to each question and avoid spending too much time on a single question.
Read the questions carefully: Read each question carefully and ensure you understand what is required before attempting to answer it. This will help you avoid common mistakes and improve your chances of success.
Be clear and concise in your answers: Write your answers clearly and concisely, using appropriate terminology and notation. Ensure that your calculations are accurate and your explanations are logical and easy to follow.
Review your work: Before submitting your examination, take the time to review your work and ensure that you have answered all the questions to the best of your ability. This will help you identify and correct any errors and improve your chances of success.

Section 5: Conclusion

The WAEC Physics examination is a crucial test that requires thorough preparation and practice. By following the tips and strategies provided in this comprehensive guide, you can boost your chances of success in the examination. Remember to practice regularly, review past questions, and stay focused on the fundamental principles and concepts of Physics.

With dedication and hard work, you can excel in the WAEC Physics examination and achieve your desired results. Good luck!

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Past Questions & Answer , WAEC GCE

2023 WAEC GCE Physics Questions and Answers (Essay+Objectives)

PHYSICS THEORY SOLUTIONS

a) The boundary inside a semiconductor crystal between p- and n- regions is termed a p-n junction.

i. The depletion layer widens and “L” increases.

ii. The readings on A increases slightly.

a) Tensile strain is defined as the deformation or elongation of a body due to the application of a tensile force.

(i) Optical fibers are widely used in endoscopic procedures for medical imaging

(ii) They are utilized in laser surgery for delivering laser light precisely to target tissue

(iii) Optical fibers play a key role in various diagnostic imaging techniques such as Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT).

(i) Optical fibers are extensively used in military communication systems.

(ii) They serve as the backbone for various fiber optic sensor systems used in defense applications.

(iii) They are employed in the development of underwater surveillance systems.

A perfect blackbody is an idealized object that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation, regardless of wavelength or angle, and emits radiation.

(PICK ANY TWO)

(i) As temperature increases, the peak wavelength of emission decreases.

(ii) The intensity of radiation increases with temperature, with a higher temperature blackbody emitting more radiation at all wavelengths.

(iii) The graph shows a continuous spectrum, indicating that the blackbody emits radiation at all wavelengths.

(iv) At lower temperatures, the intensity is concentrated in longer wavelengths, while at higher temperatures, it extends to shorter wavelengths.

a) The Elastic collision is when two bodies collide and rebound. The momentum and kinetic energy are conserved.

iii. K.E after collision is less than K.E before collision, therefore the collision is inelastic.

d. Temperature

a) The specific laten heat of vaporization of a substance is the quantity of heat required to change a unit mass of the substance from liquid to vapour without change in temperature.

9 d (i) The linear expansivity of a solid is defined as increase in length per unit length for one degree rise in temperature.

(e) The barometer measures pressure relative to the prevailing atmospheric pressure.

The manometer measures pressure differences.

– Convex mirror uses reflection while Converse lens uses refraction.

– Convex mirror always produces virtual images but Convex lens produces both real and virtual images.

– images on a convex mirror are always diminished whereas a convex lens produces magnified images.

i. A ray parallel to the principal axis at the mirror passes through the focus after reflection.

ii. Reflected along a path making the same angle with the principal axis as the incident ray.

iii. A ray passing through the centre of curvature is reflected back along the same path.

iv. A ray passing through the principal focus must be parallel to the principal axis.

C. i & ii

PHYSICS OBJECTIVES SOLUTION

1-10: AAACDDBCBD

11-20: CCDBCABACA

21-30: BAAABABBCA

31-40: CDDDBBAAD

41-50: BBACCCDDDB

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WAEC Questions and Answers

Complete WAEC Physics Questions And Answers For 2023 (Objectives & Theory)

See the complete WAEC Physics questions and answers for 2023 (objectives and theory) here.

Information contained in this article is a special bonus for those who are going to sit for the West African Examination Council (WAEC) in 2023.

If you have been searching for the real questions and answers for the 2023 WAEC examination, I am glad to inform you that you have finally come to the right site where all the objective and theory questions for physics have been correctly provided.

In this article, you will be privileged to see all the ‘Expo’ about WAEC physics questions for 2023 .

Carefully read this article to the end if you are really interested in the 2023 WAEC physics questions and answers.

2023 WAEC Physics Objective Questions

2023 waec physics theory questions, 2023 waec physics theory answers.

The following are the expected 2023 WAEC Physics objective questions and their respective answers.

1. Three capacitors each of capacitance 18µf are connected in series. Calculate the effective capacitance.

2. Two spheres of masses 100kg and 90kg respectively have their centres separated by a distance 1.0m. Calculate the magnitude of the force of attraction between them

(a= 6.70 x 10-‘l Nm² kg²).

A.6.70 x 10’N

B. 6.70 x 10-1ºN

C. 6.03 x 10-10N

D. 6.03 x 107N

3. Local action is normally prevented in a simple electric cell by

A. introducing an oxidizing agent in the acid

B. not drawing current continuously for a long period.

C. amalgamating the surface of the plate

D. using a porous pot to isolate from the acid.

4. The lead acid accumulator consists of

A. lead as the positive electrode

B. lead oxide as the negative electrode

C. Hydrochloric acid as the electrolyte

D. Tetraoxosulphate (II) acid as electrolyte.

5. The boiling point of naphthalene is 78°c. What is the temperature in Kelvin?

6. The current in reversed biased junction is due to

A. majority carriers

C. minority carriers

D. electrons.

7. When impurities are added to semi-conductors, the conductivity of the semi-conductors

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains constant

D. increases then decreases.

8. The time it will take a certain radioactive material with a half-life of 80 days to reduce to 1/32 of its original number is

A. 180 days

B. 200 days

C. 250 days

D. 300 days

9. If two inductors of inductances 3H and 6H are arranged in series, the total inductance is

10. The amount of energy released when 0.5kg of uranium is burn completely is

A. 1.5 x 10¹J

B. 4.5 x 10 8 J

C. 1.5 x 10¹ 6 J

D. 4.5 x 10¹ 6 J

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11. The north pole of a magnet can never be separated from the South Pole because of a property as

A. magnetic monopole

B. magnetic dipole

C. magnetic quadrupole

D. magnetic octopole

12. An electric device is rated 2000W, 250V. The correct fuse rating of the device is

13. The ray which causes gas molecules to glow is known as

A. gamma ray

B. molecule ray

C. cathode ray

D. anode ray

14. Marching soldiers crossing a suspension bridge are usually advised to break their steps to avoid damaging the bridge owing to

A. Resonance

B. Swinging

C. Vibration

D. Oscillation

The figure here shows 3 capacitors connected in series. The potential difference across 6uf capacitor is

16. The electric field intensity in a place where a charge of 10 -10 C experiences a force of 0.4N is

A. 8.0 x10°NC-¹

B. 4.0 x 10°NC ¹

C. 4.0 x 10-NC-¹

D. 8.0 x 10-¹2NC-¹

17. Satellite communication makes use of

A. sound waves

B. radio waves

C. infra-red rays

D. Visible light

18. The velocity of sound in air will be doubled if its absolute temperature is

C. quadrupled

D. constant

19. The process whereby the molecules of different substances move randomly is called

B. Capillary

C. Diffusion

D. Surface-tension

20. The process whereby a liquid turns spontaneously into vapour is called

B. evaporation

C. sublimation

D. regelation.

In the reaction, X is

C. electron

D. neutrino

22. The resistance of a piece of wire of length 20m and cross sectional area 8 x 10 6 m² is

(resistivity of wire = 4 x 10 -7 ohmm)

23. ………….. is the value of F when in equilibrium in the diagram below.

With the above diagram, if the system is in equilibrium, the tension in the string Q is

25. A force of 200N acts between two objects at a certain distance apart. The value of the force when the distance is

26. The particle and wave nature of matter are demonstrated in the equation

B. λ = 2dsin 0

C. λ = hc/E

27. A radio isotope has a decay constant of 10-75-¹. The average life of the isotope is

A. 1.00 x 10 -7 5

B. 1.00 x 10 1 5

C. 6.93 x 10 7 5

D. 6.93 x 10 6 5

28. X-rays can be used in the study of crystals structure because they

A. are invisible

B. are very fast

C. have an extremely short wave length.

D. have a very long reaching wave length.

29. Fluorescent tubes produce light by the

A. thermal agitation of electron in the tube

B. refraction of light by gas

C. excitation of gas molecules

D. conduction of solar energy.

30. An a.c circuit of E.M.F 12V has a resistor of resistance 892 connected in series to an inductor of inductive resistance 160 and a capacitor of capacitive resistance 109. The current flow in the circuit is

31. If a tuned radio receives R,L,C series circuit for resonance, the inductive resistance and capacitive resistance X₁ and X respectively are related as

A. X₁ = 2 X

D. X₁ = 1/xc

32. An a.c circuit of the energy stored in an inductor of inductance 5mH when a current of 6A flows through it is

A. 1.4 x 10²J

B. 1.8 x 10²J

C. 9.0 x 10 -2 J

D. 9.0 x 10 -³ J

33. To protect a material from the influence of an external magnetic field, the material should be kept in a

A. soft iron ring

B. square steel ring

C. Loop of copper wire

D. triangular zinc.

34. A steady current of 2A flows in a coil of E.M.F 12V for 0.4s. A back E.M.F of 3V was induced during this period. The stored energy in the Loop that can be utilised is

In this diagram, the ratio of the electric power dissipated in the 692 and 392 resistors respectively is

36. A cell whose internal resistance is 0.592 delivers a current of 4A to an external resistor. The last voltage of the cell is

37. Given three capacitors 0.3uf, 0.5uf, 0.2μf, the joint capacitance when arranged to give minimum capacitance is

38. The instrument used for securing a large number of similar charges by induction is called

A. electroscope

B. proof plane

C. capacitor

D. electrophorus.

39. The pitch of a sound note depends on

A. frequency

D. harmonics

40. In which of the following materials media would sound travel fastest?

41. In a Daniel cell, the depolariser, positive and negative electrodes are respectively

A. Copper sulphate, copper zinc

B. Manganese dioxide, carbon and zinc

C. Sulphuric acid, lead oxide and lead.

D. potassium hydroxide, nickel and iron.

42. Tea pots are often silver-coated to prevent heat loss by

A. Convection only

B. Conduction only

C. Radiation only

D. Convection and Conduction.

43. If the angle between two vectors P and Q is 0°, the vectors are said to

A. be parallel

B. perpendicular

C. intersect at angle 45°

D. intersect at angle 60°

44. A body of mass 4kg is acted on by a constant force of 12N for 3s. The kinetic energy gained by the body at the end of the time is

45. As the pressure of a fluid increases, its viscosity

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remains constant

D. Increases then decreases.

46. A machine whose efficiency is 60% has a velocity ratio of 5. If a force of 500rt is applied to lift a load P, what is the magnetide of P?

47. The diagram shows 4N, 6N, 10N and 8N which act at a point O in the directions indicated.

The net horizontal force is

48. The change in volume when 480kg of ice is completely melted is

(density of ice = 900kgm³, density of water = 100kg m³)

49. If a force stretches a wire from 20m to 20.01m, what is the amount of force required to stretch the same material from 20m to 20.05m?

50. When left in a freezer, a bottle full of water cracks on freezing into ice because of the

A. contraction of the bottle

B. decrease in the volume of water

C. increase in the volume of water

D. expansion of the bottle.

See also: How to Pass WAEC Examination at One Sitting

(a) Define specific heat and calorie.
(b) Find the mass of a steel with specific heat capacity of 330J/kgk, if the temperature is raised from an immersion heater of 15°C to 60°C with a current of 16.77A from 50.6V and the time taken being 1hr 15mins.
(c) Describe how you would compare approximately the rate at which a given gas ring and electric hot plate can supply heat to a vessel placed on each of them.
(a) i. What is meant by the caloric value of a solid fuel?

ii. Explain the terms (i) thermal capacity (ii) water equivalent.

(b) Distinguish between the heat capacity of a body and the specific heat capacity of a substance.
32g of water at 60°C is poured into 60g of cold water at 12°C, which is contained in a calorimeter of mass 40 g, and specific heat capacity of 0.1J/gk. Neglecting loss of heat, show that the final resulting temperature is 29°C.003 bm024
(a) Explain what is meant by

(i) the expansion of water whose rise in temperature is anomalous

(ii) water has a high heat capacity!

(b) A piece of metal of mass 50g heated to 100°C is dropped into 200g of water at 14°C in copper calorimeter weighing 80g and raises the temperature to 70°C. What is the heat capacity of the piece of metal? [Specific heat capacity=0.4J/gk]

4. (a) The refractive index of glass and water with respect to air are and 4/3 respectively. What is the refractive index of glass to water.

(b) i. Show that when a ray is refracted through a dense medium to a denser medium, the refractive index changes.

ii. Name five applications of total internal reflection. 9. (i)What is meant by total internal reflection and critical angle?

Give two factors affecting total internal reflection

(c) i. Find the refractive index of a prism, when a light ray is incidented on the prism of angle 45° and if the refracting angle of the prism is 60°

ii. Find the thickness of a prism of refractive index of 1.5, if the prism displacement of the object is 1.3m. 12(a)

(d) i. State the laws of refraction of light.

(ii) Describe an experiment to determine the refractive index n of the material of an equilateral triangle glass prism using the minimum deviation method.

(a) i. State Lenz’s law.

ii. State the essential conditions for the production of an induced e.m.f in a conductor. What determines its magnitude?

(b) i. State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. Draw a labelled diagram of a simple step-up transformer.

ii. Current from the secondary transformer working 240v AC main, the voltage required across the primary side is 96kv. Assuming that the transformer is 100% effective, what ratio of number of turns on the secondary to number of turns in the primary is needed in its windings?

ii. A rectangular coil of wire attached to a commutator rotates between the poles of a permanent magnet to form a dynamo. What is (i) the position of the coil when the e.m.f is greatest (ii) the function of the commutator.

Find the power wasted as internal energy in bundle conductor, when 10kw is transmitted through the bundled conductor of resistance 0.592 at 200v
Describe with the aid of a diagram, an experiment to induce a current in a coil of wire and indicate the direction of the current.
(i) State the laws of electromagnetic induction. (ii) Describe a simple experiment to show how an induced e.m.f can be produced.

1a. Specific Heat Capacity of a substance can be defined as the quantity of heat supplied or required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of 1kg through a unit rise in temperature of 1kelvin.

Calorie can be defined as the unit of energy.

Solution to 1b

t = 1 hr 15mins

1 hr = 60 x 60 = 3600 sec –

15 mins = 15 x 60 = 900 secs –

t = 3600+ 900 = 4500secs

I= 16.77A, V= 50.6V

M=?, C = 330J/kgk

0 ₂= 60°C, 0 1 =15°C

Using the principle of electrical method, heat loss by the heater – heat gained by the solid

Q = Mc [0₂-0₁]

Ivt = Mc [ 0 ₂- 0 ₁]

= 16.77 x 50.6 x 4500 = m x 330 [60 – 15]

= 3818529 = m x 330 x 45

m = 3818529/330 x 45

3818529 /14850

m = 257.14kg

The mass of the solid is 257.14kg

Check also: Complete WAEC Biology Question and Answers

For more solutions to the theory questions, keep refreshing this page regularly.

WAEC Literature Questions and Answers 2024/2025 | Novels, Essay & Objective

Waec civic education questions and answers 2024 | essay & objective, 3 thoughts on “ complete waec physics questions and answers for 2023 (objectives & theory) ”.

Thanks sir… But I can’t see those obj answers am sorry to ask

The questions are not complete

please can you post the objective answers

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WAEC PHYSICS 2023 QUESTION & ANSWERS

Waec Physics 2023 Answers, Waec Physics 2023 Answers, questions on Econs Waec 2022 Waec Physics Answers 2023. Waec 2022 Physics obj, 2023 Waec Physics Obj and essay answer, Waec Physics 2023 Many Waec candidates have difficulty to solve questions on the Waec 2023 Physics obj and Essay questions and answers properly due to a lack of understanding the questions. I will guide you through how to solve Waec 2023 questions on Physics and get a great Waec score on your Computer test. Waec Physics answers 2023 for 2023 Waec Physics answers and answers, Physics theorems Waec 2023 Waec Physics Questions and Answers 2023 Waec 2023 Physics Answers

Waec Physics Questions and Answers 2023. For the National exam Council (June/July 2023. Physics Answers. This article will provide you with a variety of questions, as well as answers to the questions on your Waec Physics exam 2023. This article will help you to understand what you will be asked in the Waec Physics answers 2023.

PHYSICS OBJ: 1-10: BCABBDDCDA 11-20: CAACABBBBC 21-30: BDCCBDABDA 31-40: BABBCBACCD 41-50: DDBDDDCBDD

Table of Contents

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WAEC Physics Syllabus 2023/2024

PREAMBLE: The syllabus is evolved from the Senior Secondary School teaching syllabus and is intended to indicate the scope of the course for the Physics examination.

It is structured with the conceptual approach. The broad concepts of matter, position, motion and time; energy; waves; fields; Atomic and Nuclear Physics, electronics are considered and each concept forms a part on which other sub-concepts are further based.

AIMS: The aims of the syllabus are to enable candidates

acquire proper understanding of the basic principles and applications of Physics;
develop scientific skills and attitudes as pre-requisites for further scientific activities;
recognize the usefulness, and limitations of the scientific method to appreciate its applicability ion other disciplines and in every life;
develop abilities, attitudes, and skills that encourage efficient and safe practice;
develop scientific attitudes such as accuracy, precision, objectivity, integrity, initiative, and inventiveness.

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION: There will be three papers, Papers 1, 2, and 3, all of which must be taken. Papers 1 and 2 will be a composite paper to be taken at one sitting.

PAPER 1: Will consist of fifty multiple-choice questions lasting 1¼ hours and carrying 50 marks.
Section A – Will comprise seven short-structured questions. Candidates will be required to answer any five questions for a total of 15 marks.
Section B – Will comprise five essay questions out of which candidates will be required to answer any three for 45 marks.
PAPER 3: Will be a practical test for school candidates or an alternative to practical work paper for private candidates. Each version of the paper will comprise three questions out of which candidates will be required to answer any two in 2¾ hours for 50 marks.

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WAEC Physics Questions and Answers 2023 Obj & Essay Free Expo

The WAEC Physics will be written on Tuesday, 23rd May, 2023 at 8:30am – 11:15pm, Physics – Essay & OBJ.

For more WAEC subjects questions and answers you can check this website, you’ll also find the available tutorial for WAEC, NECO and JAMB.

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Also find: Waec Physics question and answers, waec 2023 physics questions and answers, questions and answers for WAEC 2023 Physics.

Physics Formulas

1) u=F(mg sin¤)/R(mg cos¤) 2) limiting frictional force (F)=UR 3) F(total)= F + mg sin¤ …i.e force required to move a load up the plane 4) Angular velocity (w)=¤/t…….where ¤=angle….T=TIME measured in rad.s-1 5) Period of a motion… T=2#/w……where # =pie..and w=angular velocity 6) Linear velocity.. V=WR….where W=angular velocity R=radius 7) Force F =ma…where m=mass….a=acceleration 8) Centripetal force F = MV^2/R……where M=mass…V=velocity ..R=radius 9) Centripetal force = mv^2/r 10) Centripetal acceleration = v^2/r 11) Newtons law of motion… v = u + at…….1 s= ut + 1/2at^2…….2 v^2 =u^2 + 2as………3

WAEC Physics Questions and Answers 2023 Objective Answers and Essay

(7a) Fiber optics work on the principle of total internal reflection.

(7bi) Core: This is the light transmission area of the fiber, either glass or plastic.

(7bii) cladding is made of a material with a slightly lower index of refraction than the core

9a The dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated with water vapor. It is assumed that air pressure and water content is constant. When cooled further, the airborne water vapor will condense to form liquid water.

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WAEC GCE 2023 PHYSICS ESSAY & OBJECTIVES ANSWERS – How to Get Physics ESSAY & OBJECTIVES Questions And Answers before Exam Time Leading to candidates Success in this particular subject

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WAEC GCE 2023 PHYSICS ESSAY & OBJECTIVES EXAM DATE AND TIME

Subject : Physics ESSAY & OBJECTIVES

Exam Type : WAEC GCE (2nd Series)

Date : Monday 7th December, 2023

Time for WAEC GCE PHYSICS ESSAY & OBJECTIVES : 09:00 am – 12:15pm

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WAEC Physics 2024 Answers for Essay-Obj Questions Released.

The Waec physics answers for 2024 questions can now be seen here. The West African Examination Council (WAEC) Physics paper will be taken on Tuesday, 23rd May 2023.

WAEC Physics questions and answers for essay objectives are now available. The Waec Physics 2 (Essay) paper will start by 9:30 am and will last for 1hr 30 mins while the Waec Physics 1 (Objective) exam will commence at 11:00 am and will last for 1hr 15 mins.

Following recent reviews, it has been found out that the weaknesses of candidates in WAEC Physics questions included a lack of understanding of the fundamentals of the course, inability to take precise measurements to the required accuracy, inability to plot graphs correctly and disregard of instruction, which makes them loose precious marks.

In this post, we will be sampling wa ec physics questions for candidates that will participate in the SSCE examination from past questions.

WAEC Physics Answers 2024 Questions.

PAPER 2 [Essay] Read Instructions. Write your answers in the answer booklet provided.

1. Explain why mercury does not wet glass while water does.

ANS: Mercury does not wet glass because (force of) cohesion/attraction of mercury molecules is greater than (force of) adhesion/attraction between glass and mercury molecules.

Water wets glass because (force of) adhesion/attraction between glass and water molecules is greater than (force of) cohesion/attraction of water molecules

2. (a) State Faraday’s second law of electrolysis. (b) An electric charge of 9.6 x 104 C liberates 1 mole of substance containing 6.0 x 1023 atoms. Determine the value of the electronic charge. ANS: (a) If the same quantity of electricity is passed through different voltameters/electrolytes connected in series the masses of the substances liberated/deposited during electrolysis is (directly) proportional to their chemical equivalents. (b) Let e represent the electronic charge. e = Faraday’s constant Avogadro’s number = 9.6 x 104 6. 0. x 1023 = 1.60 x 10-19C

3. State: the difference between plane polarized light and ordinary light; two uses of polaroids

ANS: In plane-polarized light, the vibrations of the particles are confined to a single plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation of light while in ordinary light, the vibrations of the particles are in all planes. Uses of Polaroid – sunglasses (to reduce the intensity of sunlight) – to eliminate reflected light/glare – saccharimeter/measurement of the concentration of sugar solution. – stress analysis/photoelasticity.

4. (a) State Faraday’s second law of electrolysis. (b) An electric charge of 9.6 x 104 C liberates 1 mole of substance containing 6.0 x 1023 atoms. Determine the value of the electronic charge. ANS: (a) The mass of an element deposited /liberated during electrolysis is (directly) proportional to the chemical equivalent of the element. (b) Let e represent the electronic charge. e = Faraday’s constant Avogadro’s number = 9.6 x104 6. 0. x 1023 = 1.60 x 10-19C

5. Explain the following terms: (a) tensile stress; (b) Young’s modulus.

6. (a) Define diffusion. (b) State two applications of electrical conduction through gases. ANS: (a) Diffusion is the process by which substances mix with one another due to the random motion of their molecules. (b) Applications of electrical conduction through gases include: – In the advertising industry/ Neon signs – In lighting/ fluorescent tubes – Identification of gases – Cathode ray oscilloscope/ T.V. tubes.

7. (a) List two properties of cathode rays. (b) Explain how the intensity and energy of cathode rays may be increased. ANS: (a) Properties of cathode rays: – They are negatively charged. – travel in a straight line in a field-free space. – are deflected by an electric/magnetic field. – possess (kinetic) energy. – possess momentum. (b) The intensity of cathode rays may be increased by raising the temperature of the cathode /increasing the current through the heater. They may be increased by raising the potential difference between the anode and the cathode/anode potential.

8. Give three observations in support of de Broglie’s assumption that moving particles behave like waves.

9. (a) Differentiate between plane polarization and interference as applied to waves. (b) List two uses of polaroids. ANS: (b) They are used in: – production of 3-dimensional films – determination of the concentration of sugar solution – polaroid cameras – sunglasses.

10. (a) State two factors that affect the mass of elements deposited during electrolysis. (b) List two non-electrolytes. ANS: (a) time, current /quantity of charge, nature/ e.c.e of the element. (b) water, kerosene, petrol, benzene, ethanol.

12. (a) i. State two advantages of alcohol over mercury as a thermometric liquid. ii. When the bulb of a thermometer is placed in a beaker of hot water, the level of mercury first falls and then rises gradually. Explain this observation. (b) List two factors, other than temperature, that affect the rate of evaporation of a liquid. (c) A block of lead of mass 100kg in a crucible and at a temperature of 40oC was placed in an electric furnace rated 10kW. If the melting point of lead is 320oC, calculate the: (i) quantity of heat required to heat the lead to its melting point; (ii) additional heat energy required to melt the lead; (iii) time taken to supply this additional energy. (Specific heat capacity of lead = 120JKg-1 K-1 (Specific latent heat of fusion of lead = 2.5 x 104 JK-1) (d) State two precautions necessary in an experiment to determine the specific latent heat of vaporization of water.

ANS: (a) i. Advantages of alcohol over mercury as a thermometric liquid – lower freezing point – cheaper – easily expansively. ii. the glass of the bulb of the thermometer first expands; hence the mercury level fails. The expansion of the mercury increases more than that of the glass and the liquid rises. (b) Factors other than temperature affecting the rate of evaporation of a liquid – wind – humidity/ dryness of the air – nature of liquid/ viscosity /density – the area of liquid exposed – pressure.

13. (a) State two factors that affect the angle of deviation of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism. (b) Seven virtual images of an object are formed when two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle 0 to each other. Calculate the value of 0. (c) By means of a ripple tank, a student was able to generate a series of transverse waves by varying the frequency ofthe dipper, and all the generated waves covered a distance of 0.80 m in 0.2 s. (i) Determine the speed, v, of the waves (ii) Copy and complete the table given above in your answer booklet. (iii) Plot a graph with f on the vertical axis and h -1 on the horizontal axis. (iv) What does the slope of the graph represent?

14. The Fig. 5.1 below shows a ray of light entering and passing along an optical fibre.

(a) Calculate the refractive index of the glass in the optical fibre. (b) Explain why the ray of light is totally internally reflected at A. (c) Both optical fibre and copper wire are used to transmit data. Optical fibre is cheaper and can carry more data per second than copper wire. State one other advantage of using an optical fibre rather than copper wire to transmit data.

15. (a) State two differences between a sound wave and a radio wave (b) Explain why a vibrating tuning fork sounds louder when its stem is pressed against a tabletop than when held in air. (c) State two conditions necessary for the: i. production of stationary wave in a medium; ii. formation of interference wave patterns; iii. occurrence of total internal reflection of a wave. (d) i. A ray of light is incident on one face of an equilateral glass prism. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the ray through the prism. ii. Calculate the refractive index of the glass if the angle of minimum deviation is 41o.

WAEC Physics Objective Questions 2024.

Paper 1 [Objective] Answer ALL questions in this section. Shade your answers on the answer booklet provided.

1. An electron moves with a speed of 2.00 x 107 ms-1 in an orbit in a uniform magnetic field of 1.20 x 10-3T. Calculate the radius of the orbit. [Mass of an electron = 9.11 x 10-31kg; charge on an electron = 1.61 x 10-19C]

2. A tennis ball projected at an angle attains a range R = 78 m. If the velocity imparted to the ball by the racket is 30ms-1, calculate. [g=10ms-2]

3. A metallic bar 50 cm long has a uniform cross-sectional area of 4.0 cm2. If a tensile force of 35kN produces an extension of 0.25 mm, calculate the value of Young’s modulus.

4. A stone projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a speed of 4 ms-1 lands on the level ground at a horizontal distance of 25 m from the foot of the tower. Calculate the height of the tower. [g = 10 ms-2]

5. A spiral spring with a metal extends by 10.5cm in air. When the metal is fully in water, the spring extends by 6.8 cm. Calculate the relative density of the metal (Assume Hooke s law Is obeyed)

6. A ray of light is incident on an air-glass boundary at an angle t? If the angle between the partially reflected ray and the refracted ray is 90°, calculate θ given that the refractive index of glass is 1.50.

7. A ball is projected horizontally from a height with a velocity of 40 ms-1. Calculate the drop in height after traveling a horizontal distance of 30m. [Neglect air resistance; g = 10 ms-1]

NOTE: There is nothing like the Waec physics expo online. Do not be deceived by fraudsters posing with fake Waec physics answers on the internet. The resources above on WAEC Physics Answers have been made available to assist candidates understand the required standards expected in Physics final Examination.

Keep following, more questions and answers will be added soon.

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2023/2024 WAEC Physics Runz: OBJ Questions, Essay Answers, and Exam Tips

Thread starter Ackley8
Start date May 22, 2023
Understand the Syllabus: Familiarize yourself with the WAEC Physics syllabus for 2023/2024. This will help you identify the key topics and allocate your study time accordingly.
Create a Study Plan: Develop a study plan that includes dedicated time for each topic. Allocate more time to challenging areas and revise regularly to reinforce your understanding.
Practice Past Questions: Practice solving past WAEC Physics questions to become familiar with the exam format and assess your knowledge. You can find previous years' question papers at your school or from authorized bookshops.
Seek Clarification: If you encounter difficulties in understanding certain concepts, don't hesitate to seek help from your teachers or classmates. Clearing your doubts early on will prevent confusion later.
Join Study Groups: Consider forming or joining study groups with fellow students preparing for the WAEC Physics examination. Collaborative learning can be beneficial in understanding difficult topics and sharing knowledge.
Review and Revise: Regularly review and revise the topics you have covered. This will help consolidate your understanding and improve retention.

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WAEC GCE Physics Questions and Answers 2023/2024 (Essay and Objectives)

WAEC GCE Physics questions and answers 2023 . Welcome to 2023 WAEC Physics questions and Answers. You will find WAEC GCE Physics Objective and Theory Answers, WAEC Physics Essay 2023, WAEC GCE 2023 Physics and the tips you need to pass your WAEC GCE Physics examination with ease.

WAEC GCE Physics Objectives And Essay Answers 2023

Note: The 2023 WAEC GCE Physics answers (expo) will be posted here during the WAEC GCE Physics exam. Keep checking and reloading this page to know when the answers are posted. Do not forget to reload this page in order to see the answers.

WAEC GCE Physics Answers 2023 Loading…

OBJ Answers:

1-10: AAACDDBCBD 11-20: CCDBCABACA 21-30: BBAABABBCA 31-40: DDDDDBAADC 41-50: BCACCCBDDB

Physics Essay Answers:

No (6a) (i) Optical fibers are widely used in endoscopic procedures for medical imaging (ii) They are utilized in laser surgery for delivering laser light precisely to target tissue (iii) Optical fibers play a key role in various diagnostic imaging techniques such as Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT).

(6b) (i) Optical fibers are extensively used in military communication systems. (ii) They serve as the backbone for various fiber optic sensor systems used in defense applications. (iii) They are employed in the development of underwater surveillance systems

No (7a) A perfect blackbody is an idealized object that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation, regardless of wavelength or angle, and emits radiation.

(7b) (PICK ANY TWO) (i) As temperature increases, the peak wavelength of emission decreases. (ii) The intensity of radiation increases with temperature, with a higher temperature blackbody emitting more radiation at all wavelengths. (iii) The graph shows a continuous spectrum, indicating that the blackbody emits radiation at all wavelengths. (iv) At lower temperatures, the intensity is concentrated in longer wavelengths, while at higher temperatures, it extends to shorter wavelengths.

—————————————————————————————-

Note: The answers below are the 2020 Nov/Dec answers.

1. Gravitational force 2. Kinetic or potential 3. Violet 4. Tesla 5. Electric motor 6. Loudness 7. Electric field 8. Constriction 9. Lead 10. Good absorbers of radiant heat are good emitters 11. Decrease 12. Sound wave 13.

14 I and IV only 15. Diaphragm 16. Multiplier is high resistance change it to voltmeter 17. P is at the level with Q 18. 34.0⁰C 19. 0.02secs 20. 2.7×10kg/m³ 21. Centripetal force applied in the wheel rotates it 22. Mg(sθ-μcosθ) 23. 0.60Ω^-¹m^-¹ 24. 800N 25. Both earth and Moon travel around the sun 26. 0.04secs 27. 0.25×10³ 28. 2uf 29. Experience electrostatic force of repulsion 30. 6m/s² 31. 0.67 32. Axe 33. Mass of the conductor 34. 20ms^-¹ 35. Charge ionises the sorrounding air 36. East west 37. 5.8 A 38. 25.1m 39. 20N 40. 40g 41. Critical angle 42. Momentum 43. fixed mass of gas 44. K 45. Jumps to a higher permissible energy level 46. Mass of the liquid 47. Spring balance 48. Argon 49. Images are formed behind the mirror always 50. Charles coloumb

Today’s WAEC GCE Physics Theory Answers:

(i)They are use to find the unit of a given physical quantity in a given system of units.

(ii)They are use to find dimensions of physical constants or coefficients.

(iii)They are use to convert a physical quantity from one system of units to another.

Time of flight: Time of flight (T) is the time required for a projectile to return to the Same level from which it was projected

T= 2usin θ / g

Maximum height: Maximum height(H) is the highest vertical distance attained as measured from the horizontal projectile plane.

H = U²sin²θ / 2g

Range : Range(R) is defined as the horizontal distance from the point of projection to the point where the projectile hits the projection plane again

R= U²sin2θ / g

No (7a) Magnetic materials are materials studied and used mainly for their magnetic properties. The magnetic response of a materials is largely determined by the magnetic dipole moment associated with the intrinsic angular momentum, or spin, of its electrons.

(5a) Forbidden gap is the group of energy levels that cannot be occupied by the electrons, these energies lies in between conduction band and valence band.

(5b) (i) free electrons which have negative charges (ii) holes, which have positive charges

(i)by heating past the Curie point

(ii)by applying a strong magnetic field

ANSWER 3 ONLY.

Heat describes the transfer of thermal energy between molecules within a system and is measured in Joules. Heat measures how energy moves or flows. … Temperature describes the average kinetic energy of molecules within a material or system and is measured in Celsius (°C), Kelvin(K), Fahrenheit (°F), or Rankine (R).

The lower fixed point, or ice point, is the temperature of pure melting ice at normal atmospheric pressure. While The upper fixed point, is the temperature of pure boiling water at normal atmospheric pressure.

9c. Linear expansivity is the fractional increase in length of a specimen of a solid, per unit rise in temperature. If a specimen increases in length from l1 to l2 when its temperature is raised θ°, then the expansivity (α) is given by l2 = l1(1 + αθ).*PHYSICS*

(10bi) The principle of superposition says: When two or more waves cross at a point, the displacement at that point is equal to the sum of the displacements of the individual waves. The individual wave displacements may be positive or negative. If the displacements are vectors, then the sum is calculated by vector addition.

(10c) Refraction depends on the wavelength. As blue light has shorter wavelength moving from air to glass than red so it refract more than red.

No (11ai) Reactance is the opposition of a circuit element to the flow of current due to that element’s inductance or capacitance.

(11aii) Impedance is measure of the opposition to the flow of alternating current through a circuit

(8ai) Work is said to be done whenever a force moves a body through a certain distance in the direction of force and is equal to the product of the force and the distance moved.

(8aii) Workdone = Force * distance = F*S F = m(v/t) Workdone = m(v/t) * 1/2vt = 1/2mv² Ek = 1/2mv² ie workdone = change in kinetic energy of the body

(8bi) Kinetic friction is the force that must be overcome so that a body can move with uniform speed over another body

(8bii) (i)Nature of surfaces in contact (ii)Depends on the normal force pressing the surfaces together

(8ci) Tc – umg = ma Tc – (0.3 * 3* 10)= 3*2 Tc – 9 = 6 Tc = 9+6 = 15N

(8cii) TB – 2umg = ma TB – 2(9)= 3*2 TB = 6+18 TB = 24N

(8ciii) TA – 3umg = ma TA – 3(9) = 3*2 TA – 27 = 6 TA = 6+27 TA = 33N

——————————————————————————————————————-

The questions below are not exactly 2023 WAEC Physics questions and answers but likely WAEC Physics repeated questions and answers.

These questions are for practice. The 2023 WAEC GCE Physics expo will be posted on this page on the day of the WAEC GCE Physics examination.

1. Which electrical device does the diagram above illustrate?

(a) a.c . generator

(b) a.c . motor

(d) d.c motor

2 . A simple barometer is constructed using a liquid Q 1 of density 16.2g/cm 3 . Calculate the least length of the tube to be used to measure pressure of 1.5 atmospheres . (Density of mercury = 13.6g/cm 3 , 1 atmosphere = 76.0 cm of mercury)

(a) 1358 mm

3. A bar AB is balanced horizontally on two knife edges as illustrated in the diagram above. Determine the weight of the bar.

4. To obtain a virtual, erect and magnified image from a thin converging lens, an object must be placed

(a) Between the focus and the lens

(b) at the focus

(d) beyond twice the focal length

5. The diagram above represents a transverse travelling wave. Which two points are 180 o out of phase?

(a) A and E

(b) B and D

(d) D and H

6. Two objects P and Q of masses 100 kg and 20 kg respectively are 1.2 m apart on a horizontal surface. Calculate the net gravitational force acting on Q . (G=6.67 x 10 -1 Nm2kg -2 )

(a) 1.11 x 10 -7 N towards P

(b) 1.11 x 10 -7 N towards Q

(d) 9.26 x 10 -8 N towards Q

7. The primary of a transformer has 100 turns and its secondary has 200 turns . If the voltage at the primary is 100 V . determine the voltage at the secondary

8. In the diagram illustrated above, a block of mass M is at rest on a plane inclined at an angle θ to the horizontal. As θ increases, the velocity ratio of the plane

(a) Increases

(b) decreases

(d) decreases and later increases

9. When the speed of a car is halved, is kinetic energy is

(a) Doubled

(b) quartered

(d) quadrupled

10. A wire of length 400 cm is stretched between two fixed pointed. When plucked its fundamental frequency is 150 Hz . Calculate the speed of the wave produced.

(a) 250 ms -1

(b) 625 ms -1

(d) 1500 ms -1

11. The diagram above illustrates a waveform . Determine the number of wavelengths in it.

12. A resistor with fixed resistance value is called a

(a) Restance box

(b) standard resistor

(d) multiplier

13. Which of the following statements is not an advantage of an alkaline accumulator?

(a) The electrolyte does not need attention

(b) it can be recharged

(d) it has a much longer life than lead-acid accumulator

14. The diagrams above illustrate the wire connections to a three-pin plug. The wires P , Q and R respectively are:

(a) Live, neutral and earth

(b) neutral, earth and live

(d) earth, neutral and live

15. Which of the following statement about, parallel plate capacitors is/are correct? I. Capacitance of the capacitor is inversely proportional to the distance between the plates II. Capacitors can filter a, c, signals from d, c , III. Capacitors can store charges.

(b) I and II only

(d) I, II and III

16. A circuit contains three ammeters A 1 , A 2 and A 3 with readings of A 2 and A 3 shown as indicated in the diagram. Determine the reading of A 1 .

17. Which of the following statements about magnetic lines of force is not correct? They

(a) Pass through even non-magnetic materials

(b) run from the north pole to be shorted

(d) intersect one another.

18. In which of the following activities is an induction coil not useful?

(a) Investigation of high voltages

(b) Study of electric discharge

(d) A.C. power transmission

19. In a series R-L-C circuit, R=10Ω, X = 4Ω and X L = 9Ω. The impedance of the circuit is

20 . A student uses two compass needles to investigate the magnetic field around a bar magnet. Which of the following diagrams show the correct directions of the needles?

21. Which of the following particles may be emitted in a process of natural radioactivity?

(a) α=particles and β-particles

(b)α-particles and X-rays

(d) λ-rays and X-rays

22. Which of the following situations is photoelectric effect employed? I. Automatic devices for switching on light at dusk II. Automatic doors in departmental stores III. Automatic devices for switching on air conditioners IV. Automatic voltage stabilization

(a) I, II and IV only

(b) I, III and IV only

(d) I and II only

23. Which of the following radiations has the longest wavelength?

(a) Gamma ray

(b) Radio wave

23. In which of the following fields is radioisotopes not used?

(a) Medicine

(b) Oil industry

(d) Weather forecast

24. A nuclide is represented by 70 32 B. Determine its neutron-proton ratio

If you have any question about the WAEC GCE Physics questions and answers, kindly drop your question in the comment box.

Last Updated on December 7, 2023 by Admin

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WAEC Physics Past Questions Objective and Theory For Free 2023/2024

WAEC Physics Questions and Answers 2023: West African Examinations Council (WAEC) is an examination board that conducts the West African Senior School Certificate Examination, In a year, over three million candidates registered for the exams coordinated by WAEC.

WAEC Physics Questions and Answers will not only help you know the likely questions but you will understand the nature of the examination.

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WAEC Physics Questions and Answers

2023 Waec Physics Exam Papers

2023 Waec Physics Exam Papers Are

Waec Physics Science Essay Questions
Waec Physics Science Objectives Questions,

You are writing the 2 papers in only one day. In this post, the previous Year’s WAEC Physics Questions and Answers are released and the 2023 Waec Physics Exam Questions will also be released for those participating in the 2023 Waec examination.

Previous Year WAEC Physics Obj Answers.

PHYSICS OBJ:

1-10: CBBBCACBCB 11-20: CCCABBBDCD 21-30: CBDADCDDDA 31-40: BDDBBCAABC 41-50: ABDABDBCBA

2023 Waec Physics Questions and Answers THEORY (paper 2)

The 2023 Waec Physics questions and answers are loading! 2023 Physics Science Essay answers Loading!! 2023 Waec Physics Science objective and Theory Answers Loading!!! Kindly bookmark the website for the answers that will be released. Better still reload the site to check if the answers for the 2023 Waec Physics Science questions and answers have dropped.

Previous Year WAEC Physics Obj Answers

(5a) Free electron: These are electrons that are not attached to an atom. They are mobile electrons that are free for bonding. Generate SFI Affiliate sign-ups by referring prospects to the following Gateway. IMPORTANT! All affiliate sign-ups you generate via this link will be dispersed among SFI Affiliates. These sign-ups WILL NOT be recorded as your PSAs or placed into your downline. Learn more.

(5b) Holes are spaces left by electrons in an atom in a crystal lattice. They are positively charged. (11ai) Force is anything that causes motion.Its S.I unit is Newton(N) or Kgm/s^2

(11aii) (i) Static friction (ii) Dynamic friction

(11bi) DRAW THE GRAPH

(11bii) Deceleration during last 5s=18/5=3.6m/s^2

(11biii) Total distance=S1+S2+S3+S4 =(3020)+1/2(18+30)(6)+(1810)=(1/2518) =600+144+180+45 =969metres

(1) Mass = 20g = (20/100)kg = 0.02kg Extension = 5cm = (5/100)m = 0.05m K = 200N/ V = ? 1/2mv² = 1/2ke² V = √ke²/m = √200×0.05×0.05/0.02 V = √25

V = 5m/s (3) (i) magnetic declination (ii) magnetic inclination

(iii) horizontal components (3) (i) Photoelectricity (ii) Thermonic equation

(iii) Compton effect (4) (i) magnetic declination (ii) magnetic inclination (iii) horizontal components

================================

(6a) Principle of operation of fiber optics state that the density of transparent glass and the refractive index is greater than the density of the two mirrors. It makes use of the principle of the total internal reflection. (6b) (i) It is used to view deep down the throat of a patient (ii) It is used to conveying information

(9ai) Latent heat is energy released or absorbed, by a body or a thermodynamic system, during a constant-temperature process. (9aii) (i)surface area in contact with atmosphere (ii)nature of the liquid (9bi) The rate of absorption of heat by clay pot is less than the rate of absorption of heat by plastics. Also, water gets evaporated in a clay pot which the evaporation causes cooling; so water in a clay pot remains cool (9bii) An increase in pressure in the cooker increase the ambient temperature in the cooker hence the food cooks faster (9c) (i) Change in the state of a substance (ii) Increase in temperature (9di) Heat supplied = m1 lvt = m1 12401400=1.51 L=12401400/1.5 L=672000/1.5= 448,000J/kg Laten heat of fusion of the body = 4.4810^5J/Kg (9dii) lvt=mc D tita 124072=1.5c60 C=124072/1.5*60 C=384J/Kg/K Specific heat capacity of the body =384J/Kg/K

Practice WAEC Physics Questions Objective and Theory For Free 2022/2023

1. The inner diameter of a test tube can be measured accurately using a A. micrometer screw gauge B. pair of dividers C. metre rule D. pair of vernier calipers

2. Two bodies have masses in the ratio of 3:1. They experience forces that impart to them acceleration in the ratio 2:9 respectively. Find the ratio of forces the masses experienced. A. 1 : 4 B. 2 : 1 C. 2 : 3 D. 2 : 5

3. Particles of mass 10-2kg are fixed to the tip of a fan blade which rotates with an angular velocity of 100rad-1. If the radius of the blade is 0.2m, the centripetal force is A. 2 N B. 20 N C. 200 N D. 400 N

4. A lead bullet of mass 0.05kg is fired with a velocity of 200ms-1 into a lead block of mass 0.95kg. Given that the lead block can move freely, the final kinetic energy after impact is A. 50 J B. 100 J C. 150 J D. 200 J

5. A ball of mass 0.1kg is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10ms-1 from the top of a tower 10m high. Neglecting air resistance, its total energy just before hitting the ground is (take g = 10ms-2) A. 5 J B. 10 J C. 15 J D. 20 J

6. A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25m/s in 20 secs. The power developed in the engine is A. 1 . 25 x 104 W B. 2 . 50 x 104 W C. 1 . 25 x 106W D. 2 . 50 x 106 W

7. When the brakes in a car are applied, the frictional force on the tyres is

A. is a disadvantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car B. is a disadvantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car C. is an advantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car D. is an advantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car

8. If the stress on a wire is 107NM-2 and the wire is stretched from its original length of 10.00 cm to 10.05 cm. The young’s modulus of the wire is A. 5 . 0 x 104 Nm-2 B. 5 . 0 x 105 Nm-2 C. 2 . 0 x 108 Nm-2 D. 2 . 0 x 109 Nm-2

9. A solid weigh 10 .00 N in air, 6 N when fully immersed in water and 7 . 0 N when fully immersed in a liquid X. Calculate the relative density of the liquid, X. A. 5/3 B. 4/3 C. 3/4 D. 7/10

10. When the temperature of liquid increases, its surface tension A. Decreases B. Increases C. Remain Constant D. Increases then decrease

11. A gas at a volume of V0 in a container at pressure P0 is compressed to one-fifth of its volume. What will be its pressure if the magnitude of its original temperature T is constant? A. P0/5 B. 4P0/5 C. P0 D. 5P0

12. A piece of the substance of specific head capacity 450JKg-1K-1 falls through a vertical distance of 20m from rest. Calculate the rise in temperature of the substance on hitting the ground when all its energies are converted into heat. [g = 10ms-2] A. 2/9°C B. 4/9°C C. 9/4°C D. 9/2°C

Use this content below to answer only No. 13

I. A liquid boils when its saturated vapour pressure is equal to the external pressure II. Dissolved substances in pure water lead to an increase in the boiling point. III. When the external pressure is increased, the boiling point increases. IV. Dissolved substances in pure water decrease the boiling point.

13. Which combination of the above are peculiarities of the boiling point of a liquid? A. I, II and III B. I, II, III and IV C. I, II and IV D. II, III and IV

14. The temperature gradient across a copper rod of thickness 0.02m, maintained at two temperature junctions of 20°C and 80°C respectively is A. 3.0 x 102Km-1 B. 3.0 x 103Km-1 C. 5.0 x 103Km-1 D. 3.0 x 104Km-1

15. Calculate the mass of ice that would melt when 2kg of copper is quickly transferred from boiling water to a block of ice without heat loss; Specific heat capacity of copper = 400JKg-1K-1 Latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.3 x 105JKg-1 A. 8/33kg B. 33/80kg C. 80/33kg D. 33/8kg

16. The equation of a wave traveling along the positive x-direction is given by; y = 0.25 x 10-3 sin (500t – 0.025x). Determine the angular frequency of the wave motion. A. 0.25 x 10-3rad s-1 B. 0.25 x 10-1rad s-1 C. 5.00 x 102rad s-1 D. 2.50 x 103rad s-1

17. If a sound wave goes from a cold air region to a hot air region, its wavelength will A. increase B. decrease C. decrease then increase D. remain constant

18. The lowest note emitted by a stretched string has a frequency of 40Hz. How many overtones are there between 40hz and 180Hz? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1

19. A man stands 4m in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is moved 1m towards the man, the distance between him and his new image is A. 3m B. 5m C. 6m D. 10m

20. The inside portion of part of a hollow metal sphere of diameter 20cm is polished. The portion will therefore form A. concave mirror of focal length 5cm B. concave mirror of focal length 10cm C. convex mirror of focal length 5cm D. convex mirror of focal length 20cm

21. The velocities of light in air and glass are 3.0 x 108ms-1 and 2.0 x 108ms-1 respectively. If the angle of refraction is 30°, the sine of the angle of incidence is A. 0.33 B. 0.50 C. 0.67 D. 0.75

22. An astronomical telescope is said to be in normal adjustment when the A. eye is accommodated B. focal length of the objective lens is longer than that of eyepiece C. final image is at the near point of the eye D. final image is at infinity

23. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is least energetic? A. Infra-red rays B. X-rays C. Ultra-violet rays D. Gamma rays

24. Steel is more suitable for permanent magnet than iron because the former A. is easily demagnetized by sharing vigorously B. is an alloy of many metals C. is easily magnetized by alternating current through one cycle D. retains magnetism more than iron

25. Four cells each of e.m.f 1.5V and internal resistance of 4Ω are connected in parallel. What is the effective e.m.f. and internal resistance of the combination? A. 6.0V, 16Ω B. 6.0V, 1Ω C. 1.5V, 4Ω D. 1.5V, 1Ω

26. A 3000W electric cooker is to be used on a 200V mains circuit. Which of the fuses below can be used safely with the cooker? A. 2A B. 5A C. 10A D. 20A

27. A galvanometer has a resistance of 5Ω. By using a shunt wire of resistance 0.05Ω, the galvanometer could be converted to an ammeter capable of reading 2Amp. What is the current through the galvanometer? A. 2mA B. 10mA C. 20mA D. 25mA

28. In fleming’s right-hand rule, the thumb, the forefinger and the middle finger if held mutually at right angles represent respectively, the A. motion, the field and the induced current B. induced current, the motion and the field C. field, the induced current and the motion D. induced current, the field and the motion

29. At what frequency would a 10H inductor have a reactance of 2000Ω? A. π/200Hz B. π/100Hz C. 100/πHz D. 100πHz

30. The core of an efficient transformer should consist of laminated pieces of metal in order to A. increase the heat produced by increasing the eddy current B. increase the heat produced by reducing the eddy current C. reduce the heat produced by increasing the eddy current D. reduce the heat produced by reducing the eddy current

31. Gamma rays are produced when

A. high-velocity electrons are abruptly stopped in metals B. energy changes occur within the nucleus of atoms C. energy changes occur within the electronic structure of atoms D. electrons are deflected in very strong magnetic fields

32. What is the speed of a particle of mass 10-27kg whose wavelength is 10-8m. [h = 6.63 x 10-34Js] A. 6.63ms-1 B. 66.30ms-1 C. 663.00ms-1 D. 6630.00ms-1

33. In a series R-L-C circuit at resonance, the voltages across the resistor and the inductors are 30V and 40V respectively, what is the voltage across the capacitor? A. 30V B. 40V C. 50V D. 70V

34. In the Rutherford scattering experiment, a beam of alpha particles was fired at a thin gold film with some of the particles being considerably deflected. This shows that A. a gold nucleus contains protons, neutrons, and electrons uniformly distributed in a tiny volume B. the gold nucleus is positively charged and is concentrated in a tiny volume C. the gold nucleus emitted alpha particles D. the gold nucleus is concentrated in a tiny volume and contains alpha particles

35. 2311Na + Proton → pqX + alpha particle What are the values of p and q respectively in the equation above? A. 10 and 20 B. 12 and 24 C. 20 and 10 D. 24 and 12

36. A semiconductor diode is used in rectifying alternating current into direct current mainly because of it. A. allows current to flow in either direction B. is non-linear C. offers a high input resistance D. allows current to flow only in one direction

37. If ∆x is the uncertainty in the measurement of the position of a particle along the x-axis and ∆Px is the uncertainty in the measurement of the linear momentum along the x-axis, then the uncertainty principle relation is given as A. ∆x ∆Px ≥ h B. ∆x ∆Px = 0 C. ∆x ∆Px < h D. ∆x ∆Px = ∞

38. When a ship sails from saltwater into freshwater, the fraction of its volume above the water surface will

A. increase B. decrease C. remain the same D. increase then decrease

Use this content below to answer only No. 39

I. Its velocity is constant II. No work is done on the body III. It has constant acceleration directed away from the centre IV. The centripetal force is directed towards the centre

39. Which combination of the above is true of a body moving with constant speed in a circular track? A. II and IV B. I and IV C. II and III D. I and III

40. The velocity ratio of a machine is 5 and its efficiency is 75%. What effort would be needed to lift a load of 150N with the machine? A. 20N B. 30N C. 40N D. 50N

41. At a fixed point below a liquid surface, the pressure downwards is P1 and pressure upwards is P2. It can be deduced that A. P1 > P2 B. P1 ≥ P2 C. P1 < P2 D. P1 = P2

42. If the force and the velocity on a system are each reduced simultaneously by half, the power of the system is A. doubled B. reduced to a quarter C. reduced by half D. constant

43. A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is extended by 20cm with an applied force F. If the stone leaves with a velocity of 40m/s, the value of F is A. 4.0 x 102N B. 2.0 x 103N C. 4.0 x 103N D. 4.0 x 104N

44. A stream is flowing at 0.75ms-1 and a boat heading perpendicular for the stream landed at the opposite bank at an angle of 30°. Calculate the velocity of the boat. A. 1.50ms-1 B. 1.00ms-1 C. 0.86ms-1 D. 0.65ms-1

45. A rope is being used to pull a mass of 10kg vertically upward. Determine the tension in the rope if, starting from rest, the mass acquires a velocity of 4ms-1 in 8s [g = 10ms-2] A. 5N B. 50N C. 95N D. 105N

Use this content below to answer only No. 46

I. The frictional force is independent of the area of the surfaces in conduct II. The frictional force depends on the nature of the surfaces in contact III. The frictional force depends on the speed of sliding IV. The frictional force is directly proportional to the normal reaction.

46. Which combination of the above is true of sliding friction? A. I, III and IV B. I, II and IV C. I, II and III D. II, III and IV

47. Total internal reflection occurs when light moves from A. a dense medium to a less dense medium B. air to water C. water to glass D. a less dense to a dense medium

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WAEC Physics Questions and Answers 2024 Objective and Essay

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WAEC physics 2024 answers are now available. WAEC physics questions and answers 2024/2025 objective and essay and other exam details for WASSCE 2024 are on this page. See the 2024 WAEC physics answers for both objective and theory below. Get the WAEC physics objective and essay answers here.

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WAEC Physics Answers 2024 Objective and Theory

The West Africa Examinations Council (WAEC) is an examination body in Nigeria that conducts the Senior Secondary Certificate Examination and the General Certificate in Education in May/June and November/December respectively.

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WAEC Physics Theory Past Questions and Answers in 2023

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Table of Contents

1.1 WAEC Essay Questions Part I
1.2 WAEC Theory Questions Part II
2 Free Download WAEC Theory Past Questions
3 How to get WASSCE Physic Objective and Essay Questions and Answers

WAEC Physics Theory Questions and Answers

1 1/2 Hours

[ 60 marks ]

Answer eight questions in all.

Five questions from Part I and three questions from Part II .

WAEC Essay Questions Part I

Answer any five questions from this part.

All questions carry equal marks.

1. (a) Define strain .

(b) A rubber band is stretched to twice its original length.

Calculate the strain on the rubber band.

2. State three materials used for making optical fibres.

3. Name three classes of magnetic materials.

4.(a) What is an intrinsic semiconductor ?

(b) Distinguish between the p-type and n-type semiconductors.

6. A black body radiates maximum energy when its surface temperature T and the corresponding wavelength λ max are related by the equation, λ max T = constant. Given the values of the constant and surface temperature as 2.9 x 10 -3 mK and 57 0 C respectively,

Calculate the frequency of the energy radiated.

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7. (a) What does the acronym LASER stand for?

(b) What is a laser ?

WAEC Theory Questions Part II

Answer any three questions from this part.

8(a) Define uniform acceleration ,

(b) Forces act on a car in motion, list the:

(i) horizontal forces and their directions;

(ii) vertical forces and their directions,

It maintains this speed for 30s before decelerating uniformly to rest.

The total time for the journey is 60 s.

(i) Sketch a velocity-time graph for the motion,

(ii) Use the graph to determine the:

(α) total distance travelled by the car;

(β) deceleration of the car.

(d) The figure here illustrates force-extension graph for a stretched spiral spring. Determine the work done on the spring [download document below to see the image]

9. (a) List two factors each that affect heat loss by:

(i) radiation; (ii) convection,

(b)State two factors that determine the quantity of heat in a body.

(c)Explain the statement: The specific latent heat of vaporization of mercury is 2.72 x 10 5 Jkg 1 .

(d)A jug of heat capacity 250 J kg -1 contains water at 28°C

An electric heater of resistance 35Ω connected to a 220 v source is used to raise the temperature of the water until it boils at 100°C in 4 minutes.

After another 5 minutes, 300 g of water has evaporated. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, calculate the:

(i) Mass of water in the jug before heating;

(ii) Specific latent heat of vaporization of steam.

[Specific Heat Capacity of Water = 4200 Jkg -1 K -1 ]

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Solved WAEC Mathematics Questions and Answers For 2023/2024 (Essay and Objectives)

The questions and answers for the Waec Mathematics 2023 exam have been released. The General Mathematics essay and objective paper for the West African Examination Council (WAEC) will now be written on Thursday, 1st June 2023.

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The West African Senior School Certificate Examination Board (WASSCE) formulates and compiles the WAEC questions. Ensure that you observe the WAEC’s instructions

The WAEC Maths 2 (Essay) exam will begin at 9:30 am and last for 2 hours and thirty minutes, while the Waec Mathematics 1 (Objective) exam will begin at 3:00 pm and last for one hour and thirty minutes. In this post, you will find the WAEC Maths questions and answers 2023 for candidates who will be taking the examination based on questions from previous years.

The following questions and answers on WAEC Mathematics have been provided to assist candidates in comprehending the expected requirements for the WAEC Mathematics Examination.

Mathematics OBJ WAEC Answers

Scroll to the bottom to get the 2023 WAEC answers and refresh the page

The 2023 WAEC Mathematics Answers will be posted here during the examination WAEC Maths 2023 Answers Loading…

Note: The answers below are for 2022

1-10: ABBDBBBCAC

11-20: ABDDCCCBDD

21-30: ADCDBBCBCC

31-40: CCBCABBCCD

41-50: CDCBCADCBC

2023/2024 WAEC Mathematics Questions and Answers

Mathematics question and answer for the 2023 WAEC can be found at then of this post.

PAPER 2 [Essay]

Respond to any… inquiries. Write your answers in the supplied answer booklet.

1. (a) Solve: 7x + 4 < (4x + 3). (b) Salem, Sunday, and Shaka divided N 1,100 between them. For every N2.00 Salem receives, Sunday receives 50 kobo, and for every N4.00 Sunday receives, Shaka receives N2.00. Find Shaka’s share.

a) The angle of depression of a boat from the cliff’s midpoint is 35 degrees. Determine the height of the precipice if the boat is 120 metres from the base of the cliff.

(b) P and Q are x kilometres apart. Two motorists set out simultaneously from P to Q at 60 km/h and 80 km/h, respectively. The quicker driver arrived at Q thirty minutes before the other. Determine the worth of x.

3. (a) A child of height 1.2 m stands 6 m from the base of a vertical lamppost measuring 4.2 m in length. If the lantern is located at the top of the pole, depict this in a diagram.

(b) Determine the:

(i) the length of the boy’s shadow cast by the lamp; (ii) the angle of elevation of the lamp relative to the boy, rounded to the nearest degree.

4. (a) The current age ratio between a father and his son is 10:3. How many years from now, if the son is 15 years old, will the ratio of their ages be 2:1?

(b) The arithmetic mean of x, y, and z is 6, whereas it is 9 for x, y, z, t, u, v, and w. Determine the geometric mean of t, u, v, and w.

5. On the same horizontal ground, point H is 20 metres distant from the base of a tower. From point H, the elevation angles of point (P) on the tower and the tower’s apex (T) are 30o and 50o, respectively. Calculate and correct three figures of significance:

(a) /PT/; (b) The distance between H and the summit of the tower; (c) The location of H if H’s angle of depression from the top of the tower is to be 40 degrees.

GENERAL MATHEMATICS /MATHEMATICS (CORE) 1

Today’s WAEC Obj answers still loading…

Solutions to WAEC Mathematics Questions

1. Express, correct to three significant figures, 0.003597.

2 . Evaluate: (0.064)^-1/3

3 . Solve: y+1/2 – 2y-1/3 = 4

4. Simplify, correct to three significant figures, (27.63)^2 – (12.37)^2

5. If 7 + y = 4 ( mod 8), find the least value of y, 10<=y<=30

6. If T = (prime numbers) and

M = (odd numbers) are subsets of

U = (x: 0<x<=10, and x is an integer), find (T’ n M’).

A. (4, 6, 8, 10)

B. (1, 4, 6, 8, 10)

C. (1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10)

D. (1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9)

7. Evaluate: log9 base 3 – log8 base 2 /log9 base 3

8. If 23 y = 1111 two , find the value of y.

9. If 6, P and 14 are consecutive terms in an Arithmetic Progression (A.P), find the value of P.

10. Evaluate: 2 (SQRT 28) – 3 (SQRT 50) + (SQRT 50)

A. 4 (SQRT 7) – 21 (SQRT 2)

B. 4 (SQRT 7) – 11 (SQRT 2)

C. 4 (SQRT 7) – 9 (SQRT 2)

D. 4 (SQRT 7) + (SQRT 2)

11. If m : n = 2 : 1, evaluate 3m^2 – 2n^2 /m^2 + mn

12. H varies directly as p and inversely as the square of y. If H = 1, p = 8 and y = 2, find H in terms of p and y

A. H = p /4y^2

B. H = 2p / y^2

C. H = p / 2 y^2

D. H = p / y^2

13. Solve 4x^2 – 16x + 15

A. X = 1 (1/2) or X = -2 (1/2)

B. X = 1 (1/2) or X = 2 (1/2)

C. X = 1 (1/2) or X = -1 (1/2)

D. X = -1 (1/2) or X = -2 (1/2)

14. Evaluate 0.42 divided by 2.5 /0.5 x 2.05, leaving the answer in standard form .

A. 1.639 x 10^2

B. 1.639 x 10^1

C. 1.639 x 10^-1

D. 1.639 x 10^-2

15. Simplify: log6 – 3log3 + 2/3log27.

16. Bala sold an article for 6,900.00 naira and made a profit of 15 percent. Calculate his percentage profit if he had sold for 6600.00.

A. 5 percent

B. 10 percent

C. 12 percent

D. 13 percent

17. If 3p = 4q and 9p = 8q-12, find the value of pq.

18. If (0.25)^y = 32, find the value of y.

A. y = -5/2

B. y = -3/2

19. There are 8 boys and 4 girls in a lift. What is the probability that the first person who steps out of the lift will be a boy?

20. Simplify: x^2 – 5x – 14 / x^2 – 9x + 14

A. X – 7 /x + 7

B. X + 7 /x – 7

C. X – 2 /x + 4

D. X + 2 /x – 2

21. Which of these values would make 3p – 1 /p^2 – p undefined?

22. The total surface area of a solid cylinder is 165 cm 2 . If the base diameter is 7 cm, calculate its height. (Take pi = 22/7)

23 . If 2^a = SQRT(64) and b/a = 3, evaluate a^2 + b^2.

24. In triangle XYZ, line XZ = 32 cm, angle YXZ = 52 degrees and XZY = 90 degrees. Find, correct to the nearest centimeter, line XZ.

25. If log 2 base x = 0.3, evaluate log 8 base x.

26. An arc subtends an angle of 72 degrees at the centre of a circle. Find the length of the arc if the radius of the circle is 3.5 cm. (Take pi = 22/7)

27. Make b the subject of the relation

lb = 1/2(a+b)h

A. ah /2l – h

B. 2l – h/al

C. al/2l – h

D. al/2 – h

29. Eric sold his house through an agent who charged 8 percent commission on the selling price. If Eric received 117,760.00 dollars after the sale, what was the selling price of the house?

A. 130,000.00 dollars

B. 128,000.00 dollars

C. 125,000.000 dollars

D. 120,000.00 dollars

29. Find the angle which an arc of length 22 cm subtends at the centre of a circle of radius 15 cm. (take pi = 22/7)

A. 70 degrees

B. 84 degrees

C. 96 degrees

D. 156 degrees

30. A rectangular board has a length of 15 cm and width x cm. If its sides are doubled, find its new area.

A. 60x cm squared

B. 45x cm squared

C. 30x cm squared

D. 15x cm squared

31. In the diagram, POS and ROT are straight lines. OPQR is a parallelogram, line OS = line OT and angle OST = 50 degrees. Calculate the value of angle OPQ.

A. 100 degrees

B. 120 degrees

C.140 degrees

D. 160 degrees

32. Factorize completely: (2x + 2y)(x-y) + (2x – 2y)(x + y)

A. 4(x – y)(x + y)

B. 4(x – y)

C. 2(x – y) (x + y)

D. 2(x – y)

33. The interior angles of a polygon are 3x, 2x, 4x, 3x and 6x. Find the size of the smallest angle of the polygon.

A. 80 degrees

B. 60 degrees

C. 40 degrees

D. 30 degrees

34. A box contains 2 white and 3 blue identical balls. If two balls are picked at random from the box, one after the other with replacement, what is the probability that they are of different colours?

35. Find the equation of a straight line passing through the points (1, -5) and having gradient of ¾.

A. 3x + 4y – 23 = 0

B. 3x + 4y + 23 = 0

C. 3x – 4y + 23 = 0

D. 3x – 4y – 23 = 0

36. The foot of a ladder is 6 m from the base of an electric pole. The top of the ladder rest against the pole at a point 8 m above the ground. How long is the ladder?

37. If tan x = 3/4, 0<x<90,

evaluate cos x/2sin x

38. From the top of a vertical cliff 20 m high , a boat at sea can be sighted 75 m away and on the same horizontal position as the foot of the cliff. Calculate, correct to the nearest degree, the angle of depression of the boat from the top of the cliff.

A. 56 degrees

B. 75 degrees

C. 16 degrees

D. 15 degrees

39. In the diagram, O is the centre of the circle of radius 18 cm. If angle ZXY = 70 degrees, calculate the length of arc ZY. (Take pi = 22/7)

In the diagram, RT is tangent to the circle at R, angle PQR = 70 degrees, angle QRT = 52 degrees, angle QSR = y and angle PRQ = x. Use the diagram to answer questions 40 and 41

40. Find the value of y.

B. 60 degree

C. 52 degree

D. 18 degree

41. Calculate the value of x

B. 58 degrees

C. 55 degrees

D. 48 degrees

42. Calculate the variance of 2, 4, 7, 8, 9

43. The fourth term of an Arithmetic Progression (A.P.) is 37 and the first term is -20. Find the common difference.

In the diagram, PQ is parallel to RS, angle QFG = 105 degrees and angle FEG = 50 degrees. Use the diagram to answer questions 44 and 45.

44. Find the value of m

A. 130 degrees

B. 105 degrees

C. 75 degrees

D. 55 degrees

45. Find the values of n

A. 40 degrees

B. 55 degrees

D. 130 degrees

46. A box contains 5 red, 6 green and 7 yellow pencils of the same size. What is the probability of picking a green pencil at random?

47. The pie chart represents fruits on display in a grocery shop. If there are 60 oranges on display, how many apples are there?

The following are scores obtained by some students in a test.

8 18 10 14 18 11 13 14 17 15 8 16 13

Use this information to answer questions 48 to 50

48. Find the mode of the distribution

49. Find the median score.

50. How many students scored above the mean score?

Are the WAEC objective questions difficult? Let’s quickly move to the Solutions of 2020/2021 WAEC Mathematics Questions

The two zeros before 3 are not counted since they are not between whole numbers

0.064^(-1/3) = 5/2

3 . y+1/2 – 2y-1/3 = 4

Multiply through by 6

3y + 3 – 4y + 2 = 24

Collecting like terms

6. U = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10)

T = (2, 3, 5, 7)

M = (1, 3, 5, 7, 5)

(T’ n M’) = the numbers in the union set U but not in T and M

(T’ n M’) = (4, 6, 8, 10)

7. Log9 base 3 – log 8 base 2 / log 9 base 3

Log3^2 base 3 – log2^3 base 2 / log 3^2

2log3 base 3 – 3log2 base 2 / 2log3 base 3

Log3 base 3 = 1

Log 2 base = 1

Reason : Log to its own base is 1

This implies:

2 -3 /2 = -1/2

8. Convert both sides to base ten

2xy^1 + 3Xy^0 = 1×2^3 + 1×2^2 + 1x 2^1 + 1×2^0

2y +3 = 8 + 4 + 2 + 2 + 1

2y + 3 = 15

Y = 12/2 = 6

9. 6, p, 14

First term a = 6, third term = 14

Number of terms of A.P = a + (n-1)d

T3 =14 = a + 2d

6 + 2d = 14

Common difference d = 14

P = second term

T2 = a + d = 6 + 4 = 10

10. 4 SQRT(7) – 15 SQRT(2) + 6 SQRT(2)

4 SRT(7) – 9 SRT(2)

11 . m/n = 2/1

3(2n)^2 – 2n^2 / 2n^2 +2n^2

12n^2 – 2n^2 / 4n^2 + 2n^2 = 10n^2/6n^2

12. H = kp / y^2 where k = constant, H = 1, p = 8, y = 2

k = Hy^2 /p = 4×1/8 = ½

13. Factorizing:

(4x^2 -6x)(-10x +15)

2x(2x – 3)-5(2x – 3)

2x-5 = 0 or 2x-3 = 0

X = 5/2 or x = 3/2

16. 15 percent profit = 115 = 6,900 naira

Let the percent Bala sold the article at 6600 naira = x

115 = 6,900

Cross multiplying

6900x = 759000

X = 110 percent

The percentage profit if he had sold it at 6600 naira = 110 – 100

= 10 percent

17. 3p = 4q

9p = 8q – 12

8q – 12 -(36q/3)

24q – 36 – 36q

p = -4, pq = -3x-4 = 12

18. (0.25)^y = 32

(1/4)^y = 32

20. (x-7)(x+2)/ (x+7)(x+2) = (x-7) / (x+7)

21. 3p – 1/p^2 -p

It will be undefined when the denominator p^2 – p = 0

therefore, p = 1 would make it zero

T.S.A = 165 cm^2

T.S.A = 2pirh + 2pir^2

165 -2x(22/7)x3.5^2 = 2x(22/7) x3.5h

165 – 77 = 22h,

Are you enjoying the Solutions to WAEC Mathematics Questions ? Let’s continue .

23. 2^a = SQRT(64)

but b/a = 3

therefore, b = 3a = 3×3 = 9

a^2 + b^2 = 3^2 + 9^2 = 90

24. Angle XYZ = 180 – (90+52)

180-142 = 38 degrees

From sin rule,

XZ/sin38 = 32/sin52

26. tita = 72

arc length = 2pir(tita/360)

arc length = 2x( 22/7 )x3.5x(72/360) = 4.4 cm

27. 2lb = (a+b)h

2lb = ah + bh

2lb- bh = ah

b(2l-h) = ah

b = ah/2l-h

28. agent commission = 8 percent

percentage received by eric = 100 – 8 = 92

let the selling price be x

92x/100 = 117760

x = 11776000/92

x = 128000.00 dollars

29. arc length = 2pir(tita/360)

22 = 2×22/7x15xtita/360

tita = 55440/660

tita = 84 degrees

if its sides are doubled,

area = 30* 2x = 60x cm^2

31. A 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. C 41. B 4 2. C 43. C 44. D 45. C 4 6 A 47. A 48. C 49. C 50. A

These questions and solutions are WAEC practice questions to get you prepared for your 2023/2024 WAEC Mathematics Questions .

WAEC Maths Essay and Objective 2023 (EXPO)

The above questions are not exactly 2023 WAEC Mathematics questions and answers but likely WAEC Maths repeated questions and answers.

These questions are for practice. The 2023 WAEC Mathematics expo will be posted on this page 30 minutes before the WAEC Mathematicsexamination starts. Keep checking and refreshing this page for the answers.

This post will be updated as soon as 2023/2024 WAEC Mathematics Questions are out.

What you will see won’t be far from the ones above. I had taken quality time to bring down the solution to a layman’s understanding .

WAEC Mathematics Questions and Answers 2023 Loading…

Objectives Loading…

What you will see won’t be far from the ones above. I had taken quality time to bring down the solution to a layman’s understanding.

If you have questions about WAEC Mathematics questions and answers, use the comment box and you will be attended to as soon as possible. Goodluck.

READ ALSO: Join FREE WAEC Tutorial WhatsApp Group For All Aspirants 2023

WAEC English Essay Questions And Answers 2023

Waec english answers is out – waec english language essay, objective & test of oral questions released..

The Waec English answers 2023 to waec English questions can now be seen here. The West African Examination Council (WAEC) English Language SSCE paper will be written on Wednesday, 17th May 2023.

There will be three papers in Waec English 2023 – Papers 1, 2 (Objectives and Essay) to be written from 9:30 am to 12.30 pm and Paper 3 (Test of Orals) which will start by 2:00 pm and end by 2.45 pm. The WAEC English question 2023 comes in the following question papers.

PAPER 1: This Will consist of eighty multiple-choice questions, all of which should be answered within 1 hour for 40 marks.
PAPER 2: Will consist of five essay topics and a passage each to test candidates’ comprehension and summary skills. Candidates will be expected to write an essay on one of the topics and answer all the questions on Comprehension and Summary passages. The paper will last 2 hours and carry 100 marks.
PAPER 3: Will consist of sixty multiple-choice items on Test of Orals for candidates in Nigeria and Liberia, and on Listening Comprehension for candidates in Ghana, The Gambia, and Sierra Leone. All the questions will be answered in 45 minutes for 30 marks.

There is nothing like Waec English expo online . In this post, we will be posting sample questions from Waec English past questions and answers that we feel are likely questions for preparation.

WAEC English Essay Questions 2023.

PAPER 2 SECTION A ESSAY [50 marks]

Answer ONE question only from this section. All questions carry equal marks. Your answer should not be less than 450 words . You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.

1. A friend of yours who has been living in the US for some years has written to invite you to join him. Write a reply to his letter giving, at least, three reasons why you would rather remain in your country.

2. Write a letter to the Minister of Works in your country complaining about the deplorable condition of the roads in your area and the effects this has on the lives of your people.

3. Write an article suitable for publication in one of your national dailies discussing the vandalization of public facilities in your country and its effects.

4. You are the Chief Speaker in a debate on the topic: Parents should allow their children to choose their own careers. Write your speech for or against the topic.

5. Write a story to illustrate the saying: The devil makes work for idle hands .

SECTION B COMPREHENSION [20 marks] You are advised to spend about 30 minutes on this section.

6. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.

Our planet is at risk. Our environment is under threat. The air we breathe, the water we drink, the seas we fish in, and soils we farm, the forests, animals, and plants that surround us are in danger. New terms and words describe these problems: acid rain, the greenhouse effect, global warming, holes in the ozone layer, desertification, and industrial pollution. We are changing our environment. More and more gases and wastes escape from our factories. Rubbish, oil silages and detergents damage our rivers and seas. Forests give us timber and paper, but their loss results in soil erosion and also endangers wildlife.

SECTION C SUMMARY [30 marks] You are advised to spend about 40 minutes on this section.

7. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.

Waec English Objective Questions 2023.

PAPER 1 (Objectives) SECTION 1

In each of the following sentences, there is one underlined word and one gap. From the list of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence.

1. Most African countries face poverty while few enjoy _______ A. influence B. money C. affluence D. power.

2. Last year our farmers cultivated more crops than they _______ A. destroyed B. uprooted C. harvested D. yielded.

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes each of the following sentences.

Waec English Objective Questions 2023

11. There would have been a riot in our school but for the timely _____ of our staff. A. intervention B. interruption C. interference D. invasion.

12. The armed robbers ______ every room in the bank to look for money. A. explored B. ransacked C. raked D. swept.

13. The discontented men _______ up trouble among the workers. A. Starred B. Steered C. Stirred D. Started.

WAEC Oral English Objectives Answers 2023

ORAL ENGLISH 01-10: CACDAABCAD 11-20: DBACADDBCC 21-30: ACBDADBBBC 31-40: ADDDDACCCB 41-50: CDCABADCDA 51-60: BABBDBABDD

After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations is given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence.

21. Ade is too clever by half. This means that Ade is A. far cleverer than others B. actually very stupid in his behaviour C. annoyingly clever D. behaving to be clever but is not.

22. Ameh is really being economical with the truth. This means that Ameh A. is being praised for being honest B. does not know enough C. knows more than he is prepared to say D. is not telling the truth.

From the words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, chose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is used in the sentence.

31. By failing to attend the interview, Idoko has lost a golden opportunity. A. blessed B. bright C. good D. delightful.

32. I hope the principal would be gracious enough to forgive us. A. cordial B. polite C. merciful D. gentle.

33. The man’s story gave us an inkling of what we went through during the war. A. a taste B. a possible idea C. a wrong notion D. a suggestion.

34. Our aunt has expressed deep appreciation for Onyinye’s invaluable assistance during the party. A. Immeasurable B. Praiseworthy C. Selfless D. Worthless.

35. Many world leaders have continued to condemn the South African Prime Minister for his truculent posture. A. Impetuous B. Impertinent C. Aggressive D. Impervious.

36. It is usually hard to change the course of action when one crosses the Rubicon. The underlined expression is used in this sentence means to. A. Pass through a place called Rubicon B. Cross a river called Rubicon C. Cross a bridge called Rubicon D. Be irrevocably committed.

From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentences.

41. A good citizen abides _______ the rules of the land. A. with B. in C. at D. by

42. Since his swearing-in, the governor _______ his hometown. A. had not been visiting B. has not visited C. did not visit D. had not visited.

Waec English Test of Orals Answers 2023.

PAPER 3 (Test of Oral) SECTION 1

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letters underlined.

1. look A. glue B. you C. cup D. curious.

2. wit A. fright B. wheat C. tree D. market.

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same consonant sound(s) as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined.

4. plucked A. smiled B. slammed C. luck D. table.

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that rhymes with the given word.

6. carrier A. area B. barrier C. serious D. ravine. 7. drought A. crowd B. nought C. shout D. taught.

In each of the following questions, the main /primary stress is indicated by writing the syllable on which it occurs in capital letters. From the words lettered A to D, choose the one that has the correct stress .

9. acrimony A. A-cri-mo-ny B. a-CRI-mo-ny C. a-cri-MO-ny D. a-cri-mo-NY.

10. Information A. inforMAtion B. INformation C. inFORmation D. InformaTION.

PS: Once again, there is nothing like Waec English expo. Do not fall victim to scammers online trying to obtain money from you with fake promises of having access to a live question paper before the exam. What we have on this page are likely exam questions from Waec English past questions and answers to serve as a revision guide.

Keep following this page and make sure you bookmark this site for reference purposes. If you have any questions, endeavour to use the comment section below.

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pls can i join the group on science course

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2023 WAEC Physics (Essay & OBJ) Answers [23rd May]
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WAEC Physics Questions and Answers 2023 Objective and Essay
WAEC physics 2023 answers are now available. WAEC physics questions and answers 2023/2024 objective and essay and other exam details for WASSCE 2023 are on this page. See the 2023 WAEC physics answers for both objective and theory below. Get the WAEC physics objective and essay answers here. The 2023 physics WAEC OBJ and theory […] The post WAEC Physics Questions and Answers 2023 Objective ...
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The 2024 WAEC physics questions are set from the SS1 to SS3 physics syllabus. So all the questions you will encounter in this year's examination are in the syllabus, and nearly 90% of the questions are repeated. You don't have to worry about the 2024 WAEC physics questions and answers PDF (essay and objective).
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WAEC Physics Theory Questions and Answers. SECTION B. ESSAY. 1 1/2 Hours [ 60 marks ] Answer eight questions in all. Five questions from Part I and three questions from Part II.. WAEC Essay Questions Part I. PART I [15 marks] Answer any five questions from this part. All questions carry equal marks.. 1. (a) Define strain.
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Notice on 2023 WAEC GCE Physics Daily Subscription. Candidates are advised to subscribe Two Days Or A Day before the scheduled examination date to avoid delay and receive the Password/Code Immediately to enable them to study the answers before the Exam Time.. All Payments should be done Via SMS/TEXT MESSAGE Only to Avoid Delay.We Reply SMS Faster Than WhatsApp Messages.
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WAEC Maths 2023 Answers Loading… Note: The answers below are for 2022. 1-10: ABBDBBBCAC. 11-20: ABDDCCCBDD. 21-30: ADCDBBCBCC. 31-40: CCBCABBCCD. 41-50: CDCBCADCBC. 2023/2024 WAEC Mathematics Questions and Answers. Mathematics question and answer for the 2023 WAEC can be found at then of this post. PAPER 2 [Essay] Respond to any… inquiries.
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The Waec English answers 2023 to waec English questions can now be seen here. The West African Examination Council (WAEC) English Language SSCE paper will be written on Wednesday, 17th May 2023. There will be three papers in Waec English 2023 - Papers 1, 2 (Objectives and Essay) to be written from 9:30 am to 12.30 pm and Paper 3 (Test of ...
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Comments, Page 2/4. Please i need mathematics,chemistry, and physics past question. Past questions on elective maths and physics. Add Bai salieu. Wassce. Yes 2022 is what we need. i can give it to you but you should pay a little bit. Please I need past question for waec. Wasse past question.
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0. March 09 2024. this suck's . i just wanted a simple PDF and now u guys are giving me all this junk I mean what the f***K. 0. March 01 2024. pls i need some waec mock past qestions. 0. February 06 2024. I can help Jx send me a message on wassup 0555552030.

Physics 2023 WAEC Past Questions

WAEC Physics Questions/Answers for Essay & Objective 2023

Section 1: Introduction to WAEC Physics Examination

Section 1.1: Structure of the WAEC Physics Examination

Section 2: Sample WAEC Physics Answers 2023 Questions for Essay

Essay Question 1:

Essay Question 2:

Essay Question 3:

Essay Question 4:

Essay Question 5:

Essay Question 6:

Essay Question 7:

Essay Question 8:

Essay Question 9:

Essay Question 10:

Section 3: Sample WAEC Physics Answers 2023 Questions for Objective

Objective Question 1:

Objective Question 2:

Objective Question 3:

Objective Question 4:

Objective Question 5:

Objective Question 6:

Objective Question 7:

Section 4: Tips and Strategies for Tackling WAEC Physics Questions

Section 5: Conclusion

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